medtech000

My brother had never been hospitalized before. When he asked if he could take a shower and was told he could not, he had no idea that there was an alternative. Given his lack of experience, he could not be the "squeaky wheel" to push for a bed bath, as some poster suggested. He was in no condition to"stand at a sink" as another poster suggested. If someone in his situation, bed-confined for a few days, hypotensive, and asking about a shower, is not a bed bath candidate for at least one day. then who would be?

I regret that I evidently left out some salient facts. Op day he was stood up at his bedside but had orthostatic hypotension and had to recline again. Same result later in the day. Day 2 he was weak, but could stand with assistance, no walking. Day 3 he walked a few feet with a walker and assistance. Day 4 he was ambulatory, but not ad lib, but was not strong enough to "stand at the sink" and bathe himself. I should have included the details the first time. I'm sorry if I misled some of you when I called him "ambulatory". He really wasn't.

A few years ago my 40+ brother had an open cholecystectomy. He then spent five nights in the hospital. After his fourth night, when I visited, I couldn't help but notice his body odor. In response to my question, said he said he had been asking if he could take a shower, but the answer was no, not yet. Finally, on his last day, his drain and staples were removed and he was told he could now take a shower. He didn't bother because he was being discharged in a couple of hours, anyhow. Now I'm wondering why he was not given a bed bath or two during his stay, given the fact that he was not allowed to shower. Why not? Are baths no longer given to ambulatory post-op patients?