This is in no way me wanting people to feed me a care plan, I'm just frustrated. I'm working on my *knock on wood* last care plan which is a case study due to an upcoming trip to visit my family. I know i can devise my plan to finish it but my nursing diagnosis is leaving me baffled. Its about an 84 yo woman with a history of smoking, COPD, HTN, high cholesterol, anxiety. She's presenting in the ER with dyspnea, intercostal retractions, bilateral minimal air movement, scattered wheezes, temp and low O2 sat. She's already been dx with pneumonia and started on Predisone and Zithromycin 3 days prior. She came in due to worsening SOB, fever, cough and pain with deep insp. Her labs indicate respiratory acidosis with compensation. Her wbc is 3.0 and other labs indicate continued bacteria presence. After the first blood culture she's started on Ampicillin. My priority dx was obviously impaired gas exchange. I'm reluctant to use ineffective airway because she's effectively coughing up secretions and no mentioned airway issues. Her pain was minimal and then after initial interventions her oxygenation status, ventilation quality, pain (none now) etc have all improved. So I don't know if I'm just an idiot but I assume ineffective protection is an issue. I was looking around though and EVERYTHING is *risk for* infection. (Or a list of other choices, but never ineffective protection) I know in the past I've followed suit with risk for and my instructors have accepted it because my interventions and rational were satisfactory but they preferred ineffective protection not risk. So what am I missing??? Why is it not addressed as present infection that needs to be treated, instead it's a risk for? Sorry for for the rant! Just want to make sure I leave these evil care plans behind me on a strong note!