help with a diagnosis
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My pt is a 48 year old morbidly obese pt with type II diabetes, CHF, PVD, hypertension who just had surgery for a left occulded distal femoral artery below knee popliteal bypass with reverse saphienous vein graft. I've came up with a few diagnosis, but i really don't know if they are right and i have clinicals in the morning.
Risk for infection related to inadequate primary defense (broken skin) as
evidenced by surgical wound on left lower extremity.
Risk for Delayed surgical recovery related to surgical wound on left lower
extremity, secondary to decreased circulation and effects of chronic disease.
are these worded right? and will they work?? Any input would be GREATLY appreciated. Thank you! :heartbeat