I am hoping someone can help me with a problem I am having with my husband's eye physician.He developed a clot behind his eye while on the road and unlaoading a 53 foot trailor. It became a workman's comp issue after the insurance decided it was. The physician we were referred to has a sign "No workman's Comp Cases, which did not pertain to us, as insurance was paying.
It is now 2008, the injury happened June of 2005 and he had a vitrectomy in Jan 2008 with vision 20/80 in right eye. He was off work and the doc released him to go back to work the 5 of Feb, which we did not know, We had just received 2 checks from disability company when he (doc) sent in forms releasing him to go back to work. His sight is still not 20/40 needed to drive and he has been very unwilling to keep him off work, says it is a DOT thing. The disability company says it needs medical update from his attending physicians, not a doc at the DOT physical place. He will flunk his vision test anyway. So because he won't commit himself to taking him off work, we are loosing 60% of his pay, his Short term disability.
Is it legal for a doc to do this, it certainly is not putting his patient first, and it is no money out of his pocket. My husband is 61 almost 62 and has worked all his life and this is his first injury claimed by workman;s comp.
I am going to send a letter to the doc and we are going to get a second opinion because he is not doing right by my husband. i do not understand his reasoning that he can go back and drive a big rig with 20/80 vision. He just does not want to get involved, but he already is. and isn't that what docs do???
Any help or suggestions would be appreciated. I told him to go take his DOT physical and flunk the vision part and then take form back and the doc would have to sign it, I would think?? I am also going to call the medical board
Thanks so much 68RN