Doesn't really make sense that a naturally produced substance is okay but a chemically similar medication that's administered is not. I bet if you said that to the OB or L&B they would be like, "Huh?"
Although, I have read that some of the fetal complications of pitocin can be, "fetal asphyxia, neonatal hypoxia, physical injury, or neonatal jaundice.
I wonder if pitocin were considered a teratogen then why would it be used so regularly administered in an environment that is constantly concerned about fetal and neonatal well-being. Seems odd. I have read that pitocin is used very liberally and used without a specific indication in many situations. Such, the MD may be in a hurry and wants to "speed things up."
I could see where you are coming from though. Pitocin admininstration leading to fetal asphyxia leading to impaired physiological development. However, I'm making big assumptions here. I haven't read anything like that. Just putting 2 and 2 together.
Maybe I see your source of information? You may need to reevaluate your source if they aren't credible.
Also, there was another thread about this subject. Here: http://allnurses.com/ob-gyn-nursing/...le-701876.html
She was exposed to a bit of pitocin while on the job as an OB RN as well as being pregnant. She was told it was a teratogen while on orientation. This doesn't make sense as it's given all the time. Maybe when one expands upon the definition of a teratogen and uses it casually, it could be harmful in that it can cause spontaneous abortion. But, does it cause embryological, physiological, or genetics defects, which rings true to the definition, I haven't heard or read this.