Hi everyone! I need input.
I had a patient this week with 3+ edema in bilateral lower extremities and ascities.
She is throbocytopenic with hematuria and a bloody sputum with her cough. She has alcoholic cirrhosis, and her condition is not looking good. She signed a DNR 3 days ago.
My ? is, would it be correct to say she has fluid volume deficit r/t bleeding even though she has edema and ascities? If not, what is a good diagnosis for someone who is actively bleeding? Thanks for your input!