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- Nov 17, '12 by mariebaileyWhat a/b the #1, BP? I know it's only a small dip, but hypotension = decreased perfusion, which is a SE of morphine. This is undesirable during an acute MI.
- Nov 17, '12 by shergillnavi took this q and its correct answer is 4 becuse goal is to eliminate pain comletely...if patient show 1 on sacle it mean he /she still have blood deprived to mycordaial muscle ....purpose is ti pain scale should be 0
- Nov 17, '12 by begoshI've encountered so many of these questions regarding administration of morphine with similar answer choices. The answer is always get the pain level to 0.
- Nov 17, '12 by Skips2. Resp rate dropping is alarming with morphine.
- Nov 17, '12 by nrs209I ran into this kind of question before....the answer is 2. The scenario is, Morphine was given via I.V. and we all know that if we give Morphine, one thing we have to watch out for is resp. distress. I probably need to start doing something right away with that resp (12) because I don't know what's going to happen within another 5 mins.
- Nov 17, '12 by CYoungLPNQuote from HelenzAnswer is 4 there should be NO pain!Q:
you have give Morphine sulfate 4mg IV to a client who has an acute MI. when you evaluate the client's response 5 mins after giving the medication, which of these indicates a need for immediate further actions?
1. the blood pressure decreases from 114/65 to 106/58 mm Hg.
2. the respiratory rate drop from 18 to 12 breaths/min.
3. the cardiac monitor indicates sinus rhythm at a rate of 96 beats/min.
4. the client still has chest pain at level of 1(on a scale of 0 to 10)
anyone who can help me find the right answer? and why ?
- Quote from shergillnavWhile morphine helps reduce myocardial oxygen demands, it's also a narcotic pain medication. Taking away the patient's perception of pain does not mean the cause of the pain is corrected. Giving a patient with a broken leg morphine will not heal their broken leg and giving a patient with an acute MI morphine will not open the occluded vessels causig impaired blood flow.i took this q and its correct answer is 4 becuse goal is to eliminate pain comletely...if patient show 1 on sacle it mean he /she still have blood deprived to mycordaial muscle ....purpose is ti pain scale should be 0
- Nov 17, '12 by dragon_ladyI saw the rationale and the correct answer is number 4...It's under priority question.Goal in pain management for the client with an acute MI is to completely eliminate the pain.Even pain rated at a level of 1 out of 10,should be treated with additional morphine(possibly lower dose)......choices 1,2 and 3 are possible adverse reactions but most priority in an acute MI is to eliminate the pain completely.
- Quote from mariebaileyThis blood pressure is completely normal and nowhere near low enough to cause inadequate perfusion. The BP dropped only 8 points systolic and 7 diastolic. This is not a significant change. Morphine is also a vasodilator, which will reduce blood pressure by reducing systemic vascular resistance. While a significant drop in a patient with a MI might be a problem, a drop this slight is not a concern.What a/b the #1, BP? I know it's only a small dip, but hypotension = decreased perfusion, which is a SE of morphine. This is undesirable during an acute MI.