"A 39 year old man is admitted wit ha diagnosis of AIDS. Lab results" Hgb 9.3, Hct 25%, plates 100,000, WBC 1,500. Which of the following should the nurse implement FIRST?:
a)Infuse 2 units PRBC
b)place pt on neutropenic precautions
Correct Answer is B. I picked A b/c according to Kaplan, if both are implementations then go to Maslow and ABC (circulation-infusing PRBC would take priority over infection was my thought process.) His Hbg and HCT are low AS ARE his WBC, but why the neutropenic first? In fact, where there was a different question abotu Toxic Shock, the choices were to either give ABX first or hook up and run 0.9%NS. Correct answer in this case was 0.9%NC....so isn't this kind of the same concept with the AIDS question?
any thoughts appreciated!