We recently began using URR's as the measure of adequacy along with the KT/V. I have always tracked both on my patients, so no big deal. What I don't understand is that residual renal function is no longer calculated into any measurement of adequacy. This doesn't make sense to me...if someone has residual function, they need less HD, right? I have found that we are now increasing DFR, BFR, and times to make up for this function not being calculated in. Could someone expla8in to me why residual function shouldn't be a factor in calculation of adequacy?